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Pre-Board Examination

Science (Theory) PB-10-2000

SET-II

Time: 3 hrs.

M. Marks : 75

General Instructions:

(a) A 11 questions are compulsory.

b) Marks for each question are indicated against it.

(c) Question number I to 10 are very short answer type questions carrying I mark each to be answered is one word or maximum in one sentence.

(d) Question number II to 20 are short answer type questions, each of 2 marks. Answer may not normally exceed 40 words each.

(e) Question number 21 to 30 are short answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer may not normally exceed 60 words each.

(f) Question numbers 31 to 33 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each, which should be answered is not more than 100 words each.

 

Q.1. Number of neutrons in the atomic nucleus of an atom of an element of mass number 239 is 145. What will be the number of protons in the atomic nucleus of its isotope of mass number 244? (1)

Q.2. Light from two different sources A and B have wavelengths 0.3 micron and 0.7 micron respectively.  Which one of the two lights carries more energy per photon? (1)

Q.3. Name the scale on which the intensity of an earthquake is measured. What intensity of an earthquake would he mild? ( 1 )

Q.4. Name the metal which has lowest thermal conductivity. (1)

Q.5. Name one hydrocarbon which is used in artificial ripening of fruits. ( 1 )

Q.6. Name one disease caused by lead poisoning. (1)

Q.7. Give the technical term for the graphic representation of the tropic structures in .afoodchain.(1)

Q.8. Chemical wastes rich in nitrogen are discharged into pond leading to fish mor- tality. Why. (1)

Q.9. A person drinks only milk. After a year he has bleeding gums. What is the cause and name of the deficiency disease. (1)

Q.10.Giveonetesteachtodetenninetheadulterationof (a) Vanaspati in Ghee (b) Metanil yellow in dal. (1)

Q.11. Calculate the power of an engine which can lift 300 kg of water through a vertical height of 20 m in 20 s. (g = 10 m/s2). (2)

Q.12. The plane of the orbit of a satellite A is vertical to 0° latitude while that of another satellite B is vertical to 00 longitude. Which one of these satellite could he used for Television transmission? What should be the approximate distance of these satel- lites from Earth's surface? Mention the specific name given to such type of orbits. (2)

Q.13. What is a pulsar? How is i«. different from a protostar? (2)

Q.14. Explain why (i)venus(ii) mass cannot retain water on their surface. (2)

Q.15. Explain the term homologous series. State the name and formula of the next higher homologueofHCHO. (2)

Q.16. Given a solution of substance A how will you test whether it is saturated or unsatur- ated with respect to A, at the prevailing temperature? What is observed when a hot saturated solution of a substance is allowed to cool. (2)

Q.17. When alcohol is heated in a test tube the alcohol vapours catch fire at the mouth of the test tube. Mention any two important conditions of combustion which are illus- trated by it. (2)

Q.18. What is biological fixation? How is it different from nitrification? Give an example of organism involved in each of these. (2)

Q.19. Consider the following food chains: (2) (a) Plant —> mice —> snake —> hawk (b) Plant—>mice—>hawk If energy available at producer level is 100 kJ in which case will hawks get more energy and by how much. Give justification in support of your answer.

Q.20. Explain in brief four practices in food preparation which lead to loss in nutrient value of food. (2)

Q.21. Fission ofoneU-235nucleusreleases3.2x 10""Jofenergy. Calculatethenumber of fissions required to produce energy at the rate of 5 MW for a day in a generator? - (3)

Q.22. When does a nuclear reactor become critical? Briefly explain how this state is accomplished in a reactor. Name any substance which can be used as control rods. (3)

Q.23. Describe the construction of a solar cooker with a diagram. How does it cause a rise in temperature to cook food. What is the range of temperature which is attained? (3)

Q.24. Compare the following properties of ethyl alcohol and acetic acid.

(a) Litmus Test (b) Sodium metal reaction (c) Sodium bicarbonate test (3)

Q.25. Name one calcium compound each and write its chemical formula. (3)

(a) Which is used for making mortar and for white wash

(b) Which is used for making cement and glass (c) Which is used for disinfecting drinking water

Q.26. Write the chemical equation involved to obtain thiokol? Mention any one use of Thiokol. (3)

Q.27. Complete the following equations (giving names of important products) (3)

(a) Fe + H2O (seam)—->

(b) CuFeS2 + O2 --

(c) AI + NaOH+H20—>

Q.28. How are high yielding varieties of wheat obtained. How do HYV' s and traditional varieties differ in respect of input and output. (3)

Q.29. A sample of wheat grain has more than 18% moisture what steps will you take before putting it in a godown for storage and ensure correct moisture content. How will abiotic factors affect stored wheat grain. (3)

Q.30. Explain the ill effects of man's activities on (3)

(a) Environmental air and water (b) Ozone layer (c) Unplanned Technological growth

Q.31. With the help of labelled diagrams explain the construction and working of a diesel engine. State any two differences between a petrol engine and a diesel engine. (5)

Q.32. Draw a labelled diagram of the fractional distillation tower forpetroleum. Mention any two fractions obtained along with their temperatures. Name any two constituents of petroleum which are not used as fuels. (5)

Q.33. State the two general factors affecting health. How do chemical pollution and habit forming substances affect the health of an individual. Explain in brief with two examples of each. What are the four major reasons for infant mortality. (5)

 

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